Twist in the tale?

In an earlier post, we had raised a question on the propriety of the Government’s decision to use the 1933 census as the basis for Reservations.

Now given the spate of pronouncements from different politicians and ministers about the welfare of minorities especially Muslims, another piece of the jigsaw is now falling in place.

Remember that the census relating to 1933 was in the pre-partition era.  In 1947 many Muslims migrated to Pakistan and in 1971  many more moved into Bangladesh.  Further many Hindus and Sikhs left Pakistan and moved into India during the partition.  So the percentage of Muslims in the overall population would be much less than in 1933.

Thus taking the 1933 census as the basis to determine the extent of  religious representation would mean adopting a distorted picture as real.

Also, does the Government treat the census conducted by itself post 1971 as not legitimate?
Is this what the powers-that-be want, in order to appease the Muslim vote bank?

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